Filed Under: Columns
Comparative Advantage
Dwight Lee is Ramsey Professor at the Terry College of Business, University of Georgia, and an adjunct fellow at the Center for Study of American Business at Washington University.
One of the most powerful and straightforward economic concepts is “comparative advantage.” As important and simple as this concept is, however, it seldom seems to inform public discussions of international trade. Almost everyone “knows” that we can’t compete with countries that have cheap labor—if we have free trade with such countries either wages will be driven down or many workers will lose their jobs. As Will Rogers once observed, “It’s not what people don’t know that is the problem, it is what they do know that’s not true.”
Understanding comparative advantage has the same effect on concerns about free trade as water had on the Wicked Witch of the West. Free trade with other countries (regardless of how much or little their workers are paid) doesn’t increase unemployment or lower wages. Indeed, one of the best ways of increasing the wages of U.S. workers is by allowing them to compete with workers (even very low paid workers) in other countries through free trade.
Absolute Versus Comparative Advantage
The most straightforward case for free trade is that countries have different absolute advantages in producing goods. For example, because of differences in soil and climate, the United States is better at producing wheat than Brazil, and Brazil is better at producing coffee than the United States. Obviously both countries are better off when Americans produce wheat and exchange a portion of it for some of the coffee that Brazilians produce.
But does this mean that a country with an absolute advantage in the production of a good should always produce that good rather than import it? No, as the English economist David Ricardo first explained in the early 1800s. A country can have an absolute advantage in the production of a good without having a comparative advantage. Comparative advantage is what determines whether it pays to produce a good or import it.
Assume that there are only two goods, cars and computers, and one productive resource which is some composite of land, labor, and capital. Assume also that producing 100 cars requires two units of the productive resource (PR) in the United States and four units in Brazil, and producing 1,000 computers requires three units of PR in the United States and four in Brazil.
Thus:
U.S. Brazil
100 cars 2 4
1,000 computers 3 4
Americans have an absolute advantage in producing both cars and computers.
It may seem that Americans can realize no gain by trading with Brazilians. Why not produce both cars and computers here? Because it costs more to produce computers in the United States than in Brazil. All costs are opportunity costs. The cost of producing computers is the cars that could have been produced. Using the three units of PR required to produce 1,000 computers in the United States requires sacrificing the production of 150 cars. Using the four units of PR required to produce 1,000 computers in Brazil requires sacrificing only 100 cars.
So even though Americans have an absolute advantage in producing computers, Brazilians have a comparative advantage. Compared to what has to be sacrificed, Brazil produces computers for only two-thirds as much as it costs in the United States. The United States, of course, has a comparative advantage over Brazil in the production of cars. Producing 100 cars here costs 666 computers, while producing 100 cars in Brazil costs 1,000 computers.
Clearly the United States benefits from specializing in cars, which it produces more cheaply than Brazil, and trading with Brazil for some of the computers it produces more cheaply. If, for example, the United States produced both cars and computers it might devote 70 units of PR to car production and 30 units to computer production, yielding 3,500 cars and 10,000 computers. If Brazil produced both products, it might devote 56 units of PR to car production and 24 to computer production, yielding 1,400 cars and 6,000 computers. On the other hand, by specializing in their comparative advantages, the United States can produce 5,000 cars and Brazil can produce 20,000 computers, or a total of 100 additional cars and 4,000 additional computers. The United States could trade 1,450 cars to Brazil for 12,500 computers and have 50 additional cars (3,550) and 2,500 more computers (12,500), while Brazil would have 50 more cars (1,450) and 1,500 more computers (7,500). Trade is productive since it generates more output of both products.
Low Wages Don’t Mean Low Cost
Notice that in determining that it is less costly to produce cars in the United States and computers in Brazil, we never mentioned how much U.S. or Brazilian workers are paid. Workers in the United States will be paid more than those in Brazil because they are more productive in our example. So in terms of output, lower wages don’t mean lower costs. Indeed, asking whether U.S. or Brazilian workers are less costly ignores the relevant question: less costly doing what? U.S. workers are less costly at producing cars, but Brazilian workers are less costly at producing computers. This is true no matter what U.S. and Brazilian workers are paid.
Moreover, free trade does not cause unemployment in either the United States or Brazil. True, free trade eliminates U.S. jobs in the computer industry and Brazilian jobs in the car industry, but it increases U.S. jobs in the car industry and Brazilian jobs in the computer industry.
Furthermore, the jobs that free trade eliminates are lower-paying jobs than the ones it creates. Without free trade, the United States and Brazil would each employ workers who produce both cars and computers. This means that many workers in each country would be doing jobs in which they do not have a comparative advantage, and therefore in which they are less productive than they could be. With free trade these workers would be directed into more jobs where they are more productive and receive higher pay, since the compensation workers receive ultimately depends on how productive they are.
The concept of comparative advantage is deceptively simple. Tiger Woods surely has the potential of being one of the best caddies in the world. How many people could give you better advice on lining up a putt or selecting a club? He has an absolute advantage. But everyone knows that the opportunity cost to Tiger Woods of becoming a caddie is too high to make that a sensible option. He would be sacrificing the return from being a professional golfer, the activity in which he has a strong comparative advantage. Understanding why Tiger Woods doesn’t become a caddie is enough to understand why high-paid U.S. workers benefit when free trade puts them in competition with lower-paid foreign workers.








Comment by huh on 8 June 2009:
what
Comment by rose on 29 November 2009:
thanks for the great info
Comment by ron_o on 13 April 2010:
There are so many factors in that comparative advantage can’t account for. This is obviously a hypothetical and in all hypothetical there are parts that can never be factored into the reality of it all.
If America makes all the cars in the world and all the computers in the world, just because it gives up making computers (because they are more efficient at making cars) doesn’t mean everyone who was in the computer industry who loses his job will get work in the car industry. Or that the country could produce more jobs that pay so well. Or that there will even be a greater market for cars.
And it’s not jobs. People are smart enough that they will find a job eventually, just not one that pays the bills for awhile. Most won’t starve, but instead will have to lower their living standards.
Let’s take two states in the USA side by side. One pays for manufacturing $20 an hour and the other pays $10 an hour but each are equally qualified to do work on an assembly line. Businesses in the state with the higher wages will eventually get wind of this and start to move their manufacturing (or insource) to the lower waged state. Eventually, one area will lower its wages and another will raise them, which will create a sort of economic equilibrium between the two.
The mistake that comparative advantage makes is that it assumes that there is some kind of ‘invisible hand’ that will create an infinite amount of demand for any product or for the world. Does it even account for the price of oil in all of this or to the limits of economic activity the world can handle? Not everyone can be middle class. As a matter of fact, look at how the middle class is disappearing throughout the world.
Comparative advantage is yet another hocus-pocus economic theory. No economy can survive without borders and just look how businesses can sense how unstable the American economy has become these past 40 years. They will go to where they are wanted and jealously protected.
And what if, when China or Japan winds up with most of the world’s wealth and all of a sudden believes in protectionism?? What if when the USA’s ‘comparative advantage’ now makes them more employable and yet east Asia decides that enough is enough. What then? That isn’t included in the CA doctrine. All countries must be on board for this to work and indeed any country that knows what it is to be poor like China does, there is no way they are going to give that wealth up easily.
And what about countries that can’t have a trade deficit like the USA can? If free trade worked out so well why doesn’t everyone have such huge trade deficits with countries that can produce things like computers. Over 50% of the world’s population can’t afford computers or a car.
If those people are going to be the workers of the world it’s only fair that they are the ones who should enjoy some fruits of their labor. I think if anything ‘free trade’ is making slaves of us all, no matter what the economic theory of the day says. So many times economic theories fall flat on their face when exposed to the light of day. Like the Efficient Market Theory for one.
Economic theories are not like a scientific theory. They can’t even remotely compare to, say, the Theory of Evolution or the Theory of Relativity. In both of these cases, if you found one significant piece of data that contradicted those theories they would have to be reworked from the ground up or thrown out. But not economic theories. They have a life of their own. They don’t live up to any standard of what a theory really means, and yet persist forever — so it seems. I mean, who cares if Americans haven’t enjoyed the fruits of free trade. Who cares that their wages have remained stagnant for the past 40 years. Free trade stands!
I just hope when the day comes that every economist who said that this should have worked will be burdened by history as the absolute fools they are. I hope the followers of Ricardo gets put in a gallery and each one lambasted for their erudite ways.
And America’s epithet? Here lies a country of fools; they traded away their future.
Comment by rogerlig on 27 April 2010:
Okay, ron_o, then let’s hear *your* suggestion. It’s easy to shoot arrows, not so easy to come up with alternatives that really work.
CA has been around (and in practical use) forever. If you have a better idea, please share it.
Comment by rogerlig on 27 April 2010:
Okay, ron_o, the floor is now open for your alternative to CA, which has been around forever and proven in practical use.
Let’s hear your theory!
Comment by Morten on 29 May 2010:
ron_o:
Boy oh boy, where do I start…
Your comment shows that you either have not read the article or do not understand it at all. You have misled yourself with your examples – they are full of logical inconsistencies. Comparative advantage does not say who gets paid what, only that both countries will have more stuff WITH trade than without trade. So forget the whole “CA is wrong because wages differ” – economists since Ricardo have been well aware of that.
The most absurd part of your comment is when you say that personal income has been stagnant for the past 40 years. This is simply not true! In the US, annual per capita money income has gone up from below 15,000 in 1968 to almost 27,000 $ in 2008 – AFTER correcting for inflation. [Source: U.S. Census Bureau, Current Population Survey]
Economics is difficult and it relies on math and formal logic. That makes it difficult for laymen to comprehend. The example in the text is a numerical example, but that is so ordinary people will understand the bare bones of the law. If you still don’t understand it, I suggest that you reread it. Comparative Advantage is not “hypothetical”, “hocus-pocus” or any other of your crude accusations. And finally: Just because a theory is old, that does not mean that it is not true. If it was so, I would look forward to read your scathing criticism of Newtonian physics…